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Exam Code: VCAD510
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Associate - Data Center Virtualization (VCA-DCV) Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You are considering using virtual machines for your new corporate email servers. You are
giving examples to your manager of the benefits this will provide. Which two examples are true?
(Choose two.)
A. Virtual machines can be reverted to prior states to make recovery from accidents simpler.
B. Virtual machines perform faster than physical machines using the same hardware.
C. Virtual machines allow you to add components such as network cards and hard disks while the
VM is running.
D. Virtual machines automatically increase and decrease their allocated memory while running.
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 You manage a cluster of ESXi hosts using vCenter Server. You notice that some ESXi hosts are
more heavily burdened than others. Which feature of vCenter server will potentially help automate
the load balancing of the ESXi hosts?
A. Fault Tolerance
B. Distributed Power Management
C. Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)
D. High Availability
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/support/vsphere5 /doc/vsp_vc50_u2_rel_notes.html(search for
DRS)

NO.3 Which VMware product allows for non-disruptive disaster recovery testing?
A. vCenter Operations Manager
B. vSphere Replication
C. Site Recovery Manager
D. vCenter Configuration Manager
Answer: C

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Reference:https://www.vmware.com/products/site-recovery-manager/

NO.4 Your manager asks you: "What is the relationship between vMotion and VMware's High
Availability (HA) feature?" What do you tell him?
A. vMotion uses VMware's High Availability (HA) feature to move the VMs while they are running.
B. VMware's High Availability (HA) feature uses vMotion to move the VMs after a failure.
C. There is no interdependency between these two features.
D. Either feature only functions if the VMs are powered off.
Answer: B

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Reference:https://communities.vmware.com/thread/ 405330?start=0&tstart=0

NO.5 What does virtualization do?
A. Converts hardware into software
B. Converts software into hardware
C. Causes your servers to consume less power
D. Causes your servers to run lighter workloads
Answer: A

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NO.6 You work in a highly regulated, secure environment. You have been tasked with finding a
solution that will analyze the environment and report on any changes in the environment to ensure
you meet the compliance requirements in your industry. Which VMware product can help to
provide this solution?
A. vCenter Operations Manager
B. vCenter Change Management
C. vCenter Configuration Manager
D. vCloud Director
Answer: C

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Reference:
ehttp://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/VMware_vCenter_Configuration_Manager_Datasheet__Englis
h .pdf

NO.7 You have a vSphere cluster managed by vCenter. One of the VMs is running a critical
application that is very sensitive to unplanned or sudden reboots. You wish to protect this VM from
potential data loss. Which of the following features will help you?
A. vSphere Replication
B. Fault Tolerance (FT)
C. High Availability (HA)
D. vMotion
Answer: B

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Reference:http://en.community.dell.com/techcenter/virtualization/w/wiki/vmware-vsphere-fault
tolerance.aspx

NO.8 You are the VMware administrator for your local hospital. A fellow administrator has asked
what role a datastore plays in the environment. Which of the following is a good definition of a
datastore?
A. A datastore is used by the hypervisor to swap local memory content if needed
B. A datastore is used as the destination for the core dump file
C. A datastore is used by the hypervisor to store logs and performance data
D. A datastore is where virtual machine's files are stored
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are explaining to your manager the different types of storage devices supported in
vSphere. You explain that some devices are block-based, while others are file-based. Which of the
following is a file-based storage type?
A. NFS
B. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
C. Fibre Channel
D. iSCSI
Answer: A

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Reference:http://searchstorage.techtarget.com/magazineContent/Block-vs-file-storage-to-supportvi
rtual-server-environments

NO.10 You are a consultant and your newest client is concerned about the visibility of performance
and capacity related information to help them manage their new VMware environment more
efficiently. Which of the following will enable them to be proactive in their monitoring?
A. Scheduled PowerShell scripts to gather performance data
B. vCenter Operations Manager (vC OPS)
C. vCenter advanced performance charts
D. vCenter Site Recovery Manager
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which vSphere feature allows for more efficient storage usage?
A. Snapshots
B. Fast Provisioning
C. Thin Provisioning
D. Storage vMotion
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/Storage-with-VMware-vSphere.pdf

NO.12 You have a VMware environment and you have noticed that the storage capacity of your
datastores varies widely. You would like to maximize the storage environment by balancing the
space utilization across each of the datastores. Which of the following is a viable solution?
A. Storage I/O Control
B. vSphere APIs for Array Integration (VAAI)
C. vSphere APIs for Storage Awareness (VASA)
D. Storage Distributed Resource Scheduler (SDRS)
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/vmw-vsphr-5-1-stor-drs-uslet-101-web.pdf(page 5,
first para)

NO.13 What is a scalability challenge that vSphere can address?
A. Change management processes are simplified
B. Automatic balancing of virtual machines after adding new physical servers
C. Easier disaster recovery processes
D. Users have self-service provisioning of virtual machine workloads
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/techpaper/Whats-New-VMware-vSphere-51-Platform
-Technical-Whitepaper.pdf(page 12)

NO.14 You work for a convenience store chain that has a full data center including shared storage and
many small stores. You want to make sure that data in the stores gets copied to the main data center.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)
B. Storage DRS
C. vSphere Replication (VR)
D. VSA
Answer: C

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Reference:http://searchvirtualstorage.techtarget.com/definition/vSphere-Replication

NO.15 Your manager wants to know how virtual machines are going to benefit the organization.
What two statements accurately explain what virtual machines do? (Choose two.)
A. Allow users to recover deleted files themselves.
B. Reduce your application licensing costs.
C. Provide higher up time than physical servers.
D. Reduce the number of physical servers.
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: TU0-001
Exam Name: TruSecure (TruSecure ICSA Certified Security Associate)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 196 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which three are protocols or services used for authentication functions? (choose
three)
A. NTP
B. PAP
C. CHAP
D. TAPI
E. RADIUS
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 It is most likely for unencrypted data to be sniffed across which connection?
A. dial-up
B. 802.11b
C. DSL/cable
D. Internet OC-3
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are two uses of the TCP wrappers package?
A. It logs all TCP connections.
B. It provides granular access control to TCP services.
C. It encapsulates TCP segments inside other protocols to bypass firewall.
D. It prevents external hosts from initiating TCP-based applications on internal servers.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 What is one-to one Network Address Translation (NAT)?
A. It is a service that translates only one originator address at a time.
B. It is a service that translate all originator addresses with a single translated address.
C. It is a service that translates a unique originator address with a unique translated
address.
D. It is a service that translates a unique originator address with one of many translated
addresses.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two assurances does digitally signing a file or message provide? (choose two)
A. time stamping
B. data integrity
C. non-repudiation
D. confidentiality
Answer: B, C

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NO.6 From a network security standpoint, TFTP should be used_______
A. to authenticate to a Web server
B. whenever you need a simple file transfer mechanism
C. in place of FTP to provide better authentication and tracking
D. in a limited capacity with the least amount of privilege possible
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the most significant problem solved by public-key cryptography?
A. key recovery
B. key exchange
C. key generation
D. key distribution
Answer: D

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NO.8 When installing an OS on a new platform, what is recommended?
A. encrypt all system files
B. apply all of the vendors patches
C. delete all admin accounts left by the installation
D. wait and see if problems develop before applying patches to minimize down time.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the most secure means of administering a router?
A. SSH
B. Telnet
C. Web GuI
D. Serial Connection
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two does the proxy service SOCKS Version 5 provide? (choose two)
A. keystroke logging
B. WINS name service
C. TCP-based services
D. Strong authentication schemes
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 Proxy servers operate at which TCP/IP layer?
A. security
B. application
C. host-to-host
D. network interface
Answer: B

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NO.12 Your Windows PCs rely on n Network Neighborhood to gain access to resources.
Your users are widely reporting resources missing.
What is likely the problem?
A. You are currently under a denial of service attack.
B. Your systems have been infected with a Trojan Horse.
C. Directed broadcasts have been disabled at your routers.
D. Updated internet firewall rules have prevented the NBT protocol.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which attack is made easier by poor TCP/IP implementations?
A. IP spoofing
B. Password guessing
C. Network PING sweeps
D. TCP sequence guessing
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which desired design philosophies are demonstrated by the "belt-and suspenders"
architecture?
A. least privilege and simplicity
B. simplicity and diversity of defense
C. universal participation and least privilege
D. diversity of defense and defense in depth
E. defense in depth and universal participation
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is the weakest aspect of the DES cryptographic algorithm in protecting
sensitive information?
A. The complexity of the algorithm makes it too slow for day-to day use.
B. Automated attacks at guessing all possible keys have been demonstrated.
C. The block size of the algorithm is too small to handle large amounts of data.
D. The source code of the algorithm is widely available and may prove to have flaws.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Echo and Chargen services are most often used for_________
A. measuring load on a local system
B. maliciously inducing stress on networks
C. creating L2 TP tunnels between networks
D. forwarding connections between systems
Answer: B

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NO.17 What does defense in depth refer to?
A. storing the firewall below ground
B. centralizing your security into one point
C. having more than one layer of protection
D. having different types of firewall on your network
Answer: C

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NO.18 What should you remember when using a plug or generic proxy?
A. Logging is extremely difficult
B. It cannot detect IP spoofing attacks
C. It adds no application specific checking
D. It cannot be tied to a particular service or protocol
Answer: C

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NO.19 What are three functions performed by the IPSec protocol? (choose three)
A. providing encrypted tunnels between gateways
B. providing encrypted multicast traffic across enterprises
C. ensuring integrity of unencrypted data between routers
D. providing encrypted connections between workstations and servers
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.20 What is true about removing command line tools on Web servers?
A. It limits footholds for an attacker
B. It is common in default installations
C. It is an example of security through obscurity
D. It reduces security because of fewer administrator tools
Answer: A

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Exam Code: OG0-9AB
Exam Name: The Open Group (TOGAF 8 - 9 Advanced Bridge)
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Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 If a technique is referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated in the
Document Categorization Model, then in which category should it be placed?
A. TOGAF Extension
B. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques
C. TOGAF Recommended
D. TOGAF Supporting
Answer: C

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NO.2 In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?
A. An artifact will contain one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not
Answer: E

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NO.3 Which one of the following describes the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference
Library, Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference
Library, Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
Answer: D

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NO.4 According to TOGAF, which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted
subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?
A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following reasons best describes why the ADM numbering scheme for versioning output is
an example and not mandatory?
A. To enable use with the Architecture Content Framework
B. To permit adaptation as required
C. To show the evolution of deliverables
D. To support change management
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-240
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Storage Foundation 4.0 for UNIX)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What must be performed before creating an empty concatenated volume in a new disk group?
A. encapsulate the volume and assign a disk group
B. initialize the disks and assign them to a disk group
C. create an empty subdisk in the disk group and assign the volume
D. in VEA, select Actions -> Volume -> Disk Group -> New
Answer: B

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NO.2 You want to track changes to files and directories in a file system to improve performance of a search
engineapplication. Which VERITAS File System feature do you enable?
A. the intent log
B. the file change log
C. the object location table file
D. the quotas file
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two virtual objects are components of a Volume Manager volume? (Choose two.)
A. VM disk
B. subdisk
C. plex
D. physical disk
Answer: BC

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NO.4 Which command is used to move the contents of the volumes from one disk to another?
A. vxremove
B. vxevac
C. vxdg move
D. vxdg evac
Answer: B

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NO.5 When using Volume Manager, what is considered the correct definition for RAID-5?
A. Combines mirroring with striping or concatenation where the mirroring occurs below the striping or
concatenation in order to mirror each column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation
B. Refers to mirroring where data from one disk is duplicated on another disk to provide redundancy and
enable fast recovery.
C. Refers to simple concatenation or striping where disk space is combined sequentially from two or more
disks or striped across two or more disks. RAID-0 does NOT provide data redundancy.
D. Refers to a striped layout that includes the calculation of parity information and the striping of that
parity information across the disks.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the virtual object that Volume Manager uses to represent the structured or ordered collection of
subdisks?
A. volume
B. plex
C. vmdisk
D. disk group
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which three plex types are valid in Volume Manager? (Choose three.)
A. complete
B. partial
C. log
D. sparse
E. partition
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 You have used the vxprint command with the appropriate options to save information about the volume
layouts on your system. Now, you want to use vxprint to provide useful information that can be used later
as input for the vxmake command to help rebuild your volume configurations. Which option must be used
with vxprint?
A. -r
B. -t
C. -a
D. -m
Answer: D

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NO.9 You want to remove the datavol volume from the datadg disk group by using the command line. A file
system is currently mounted on the volume. You are sure that you do NOT need the data in the volume.
What is the appropriate sequence of steps to remove the volume and avoid system errors?
A. remove the volume by using the vxremove command (The file system will be unmounted automatically,
and the filesystem table file will be automatically updated to remove the entry for the file system.)
B. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxassist remove, and then manually edit the
file system tablefile to remove the entry for the file system
C. remove the volume by using the vxassist remove command (The file system will be unmounted
automatically;however, you must then manually edit the file system table file to remove the entry for the
file system.)
D. unmount the file system, then remove the volume using vxremove, and then manually edit the file
system table file to remove the entry for the file system
Answer: B

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NO.10 The Volume View window in VEA displays the characteristics of the volumes on the disks. After
selecting a volume or disk group in VEA, how is the Volume View window displayed?
A. Tools -> Volume View
B. Tools -> Volume -> View
C. Actions -> Volume -> View
D. Actions -> Volume View
Answer: D

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NO.11 In order to resize an existing volume and its file system in Volume Manager while it remains online,
the file system must be _____.
A. in the bootdg disk group
B. checked before the process
C. shared across disk groups
D. mounted during the process
Answer: D

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NO.12 You are analyzing the output of the vxdisk alldgs list command. There are no entries in the DISK and
GROUPcolumns; however, you see "online" in the output of the STATUS column. Which three explain the
"online" status of the disk in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. The disk is in the free disk pool.
B. The disk has been initialized or encapsulated.
C. The disk is NOT currently assigned to a disk group.
D. The disk is currently deported on another system.
Answer: ABC

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NO.13 Which two commands can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A. vxassist remove mirror
B. vxdisk
C. vxremove mirror
D. vxplex
Answer: AD

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NO.14 You have a disk group named testdg, which you want to rename to engdg. To rename the disk group
from the command line, you __________.
A. must destroy the disk group and then re-create the disk group using the new name
B. must use the vxdg change command, which performs a deport and an import in a single step
C. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, and the volumes are automatically started in the disk group
after the import
D. use vxdg deport followed by vxdg import, then you must manually start volumes in the disk group by
using the vxvol command
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which area of a disk is used by Volume Manager to store information such as disk headers,
configuration copies, and kernel logs?
A. the public region
B. the private region
C. the virtual region
D. the CDS region
Answer: B

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NO.16 When using the New Volume Wizard in VEA, what are the two layout options available to create a
layered volume? (Choose two.)
A. Concatenated Mirrored
B. Striped Mirrored
C. Mirrored Striped
D. Mirrored Concatenated
Answer: AB

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NO.17 In this volume layout the mirroring occurs below the striping or concatenation in order to mirror each
column of the stripe or each chunk of the concatenation. This type of layout is called a layered volume.
What is the correct RAID level for a volume layout that combines mirroring with striping or concatenation?
A. RAID-1+0
B. RAID-0+1
C. RAID-5
D. RAID-2
Answer: A

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NO.18 What are three advantages of a properly configured traditional mirrored volume layout? (Choose
three.)
A. improved reliability and availability
B. decreases the need for Volume Manager disks
C. improved read performance
D. fast recovery through logging
Answer: ACD

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NO.19 Which three are characteristics of a disk group? (Choose three.)
A. collection of Volume Manager disks
B. eases the use of resources in a high availability environment
C. allows Volume Manager objects to span multiple disk groups
D. represents a management and configuration boundary
Answer: ABD

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NO.20 What are three advantages of a concatenated volume layout? (Choose three.)
A. removes size restrictions
B. provides load balancing
C. better usage of space
D. simplifies administration
Answer: ACD

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Exam Code: 250-622
Exam Name: Symantec (Implementation of DP Solutions for UNIX using NBU 5.0)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 113 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about upgrading an existing NetBackup installation to NetBackup 5.0?
(Choose two.)
A. All master and media servers must be on the same revision level.
B. All clients must be on the same revision level as their media servers.
C. A media servers revision level may be one level higher than its clients revision levels.
D. The master server's revision level may be one level higher than the media servers revision level.
Answer: CD

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NO.2 In preparation for a master server upgrade, you want to launch a backup of the NetBackup catalog.
Which two methods accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. in the GUI, right-click your configured catalog backup policy, and select Manual Backup
B. in the GUI, right-click on Catalog and select Backup NetBackup Catalog
C. from the command line, run bpbackup with appropriate switches
D. from the command line, run bpbackupdb with appropriate switches
Answer: BD

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NO.3 You have been given a NetBackup 5.0 configuration to implement that contains the following operating
systemlevels.Which three are supported by NetBackup? (Choose three. )
A. Microsoft Windows 98
B. Sun Solaris 9
C. IBM OS390
D. HP HP/UX 11i
E. RedHat AS 3.0
Answer: BDE

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NO.4 You are installing the NetBackup for SQL Agent. What must be current for communication to take
place between NetBackup and the SQL database?
A. ODBC
B. TCP/IP
C. Internet Explorer
D. Windows Service Pack
Answer:A

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NO.5 A moderately used database server must be configured as a NetBackup client. The database
application is custom built and is not covered by a NetBackup database agent. The server is in production
around-the-clock.Backups must not interrupt production, and open files must be backed up. The DB data
exists on SAN attacheddisks, though available disk space is scarce. Which of the following backup
methods would best fit this scenario?
A. Copy-on-write snapshot
B. Mirror snapshot
C. VERITAS Snapshot Provider enabled backup
D. Block level incremental backups
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which three determine tape usage when preparing for a NetBackup deployment? (Choose three. )
A. tape type
B. backup window
C. number of fulls
D. number of file systems
E. number of incrementals
Answer:ACE

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NO.7 Which two steps are performed to set up a scratch pool? (Choose two.)
A. create a volume pool.
B. add a line in bp.conf: SCRATCH_POOL = SCRATCH
C. create a file called SCRATCH_POOL and type SCRATCH in it
D. mark the checkbox called "Scratch Pool" in the NetBackup Administration Console
Answer:AD

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NO.8 Which script is executed to uninstall a VERITAS Maintenance Pack from a UNIX master server?
A. Vrts_pack.uninstall
B. Vrts_patch.uninstall
C. Vrts_pack.install and select Uninstall
D. Vrts_patch.install and select Uninstall
Answer:A

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NO.9 You have an MSSQL database that you need to add to your environment. Which three items do you
need toknow before backups can be configured? (Choose three. )
A. the version of MSSQL being used
B. the kind of authentication being used
C. the directories in which the database files are located
D. the backup retentions needed by the DBA
Answer: ABD

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NO.10 Which command is used to install NetBackup on a UNIX client where rsh is not available?
A. bpcd_install
B. update_clients
C. bpclient_install
D. install_client_files
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which two methods can be used to install NetBackup license keys? (Choose two.)
A. when prompted during the NetBackup software installation
B. after the NetBackup software installation by executing get_license_key
C. after the NetBackup software installation by executing add_license_key
D. after the NetBackup software installation by clicking the Support tab on the NetBackup Administration
Console
Answer:AB

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NO.12 Which three NetBackup processes are running after a successful master server installation? (Choose
three. )
A. bprd
B. bptm
C. bpjobd
D. bpdbm
E. bpdm
Answer: ACD

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NO.13 Which two steps are required during the initial installation of a NetBackup master server? (Choose
two.)
A. create volume pools
B. define storage units
C. set up policy schedules
D. enter the server license
E. specify the NetBackup server type
Answer: DE

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NO.14 You are preparing for the installation of NetBackup on a Solaris system. This will be a Shared Storage
Optionenvironment that consists of one robotic library, two SCSI tape devices, one bridge, and one Fibre
Channelswitch.Which four files do you review to ensure a valid Target and LUN configuration? (Choose
four.)
A. st.conf
B. vm.conf
C. sg.conf
D. sg.links
E. /etc/system
F. devlink.tab
Answer: ACDF

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NO.15 NetBackup has been installed in a SAN with a shared robot that contains ten drives. However, only four
drives appear as selectable and there are only four unique drive paths in the OS. Which two commands
are used to correct this problem? (Choose two.)
A. tpconfig
B. sg.build
C. tpautoconf
D. sg.install
E. shared_drive_notify
Answer: BD

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NO.16 You are installing NetBackup Database agents into an environment with a high level of change control.
You are using all of the relevant Database agents.Which database forces you to restart the database
though it does not necessarily require rebooting the whole system?
A. Oracle 8i
B. MSSQL 2000
C. Exchange 2000
D. Microsoft Access
Answer:A

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NO.17 You need to add a number of Windows servers from another department to your Solaris NetBackup
master server. The system administrator for these systems has given you a Domain Administrator
account and permissionto install the client, but he will not be available to help you. He has not given you
access to the computer room where the systems are physically located.What is the supported method for
installing the client?
A. share the installation CD on the network, log into the systems via a Remote Terminal session, map the
CD andrun setup.exe
B. from the Administration client on the master server select all the remote clients in Host Properties,
right-click,and select Remote Client Install
C. log in to any Windows system on the domain as the domain administrator, run Launch.exe on the
installation CD and install to network clients
D. remote installation to Windows clients is not allowed from a UNIX Master; the system administrator will
haveto give you physical access to the clients.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two statements are true about a media server upgrade installation from version 4.5 to version
5.0? (Choose two.)
A. All clients must be on 5.0 if their media server is on 5.0.
B. All master and media servers must be on NetBackup 5.0.
C. The media servers must be on 4.5 or 5.0 if the clients are on 4.5.
D. The master server can be upgraded to 5.0, and media servers can remain at 4.5.
Answer: CD

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NO.19 Corporate change control policies require that you have a back out plan before undertaking any
application upgrades. Which two steps could be included in your back out plan for a NetBackup upgrade?
(Choose two.)
A. uninstall the upgraded version of NetBackup and reinstall the older version
B. reinstall the OS and then reinstall the original version of NetBackup
C. use bprecover to recover the preupgrade catalogs from tape
D. use bprestore to recover the preupgrade catalogs from tape
Answer:AC

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NO.20 What are three recommendations for NetBackup media server installation? (Choose three. )
A. You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B. At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C. All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D. You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
Answer: ACD

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Exam Code: ST0-47W
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas NetBackup 6.5 for Windows (STS))
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Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the nbdb_ping command in Veritas NetBackup 6.5?
A. to determine if a Media Server has connectivity to the EMM database
B. to check the health and status of the Sybase ASA database
C. to create a roll-back checkpoint in the NetBackup Binary database
D. to run a simple handshake test between the Master and all Media Servers
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator wants to back up a VMware virtual machine using the VMware Consolidated Backup
(VCB)interface.
Which component is required to enable VCB backups?
A. Database and Application Pack
B. Enterprise Client
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Workstation Client
Answer: B

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NO.3 For Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup image?
A. a complete copy of an existing backup to tape media (from a disk staging unit or tape media)
B. the subset of NetBackup 6.5 catalog metadata that describes and precisely locates the data from one
client
C. all backup data that is backed up from one client in a single stream during a specific backup session
D. a full backup of the data from one client, plus the Bare Metal Restore system image from that same
client
Answer: C

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NO.4 An environment already has two robots configured, and the NetBackup Administration Console is being
used to configure a new IBM TLD-type robot. Which name is given to the new robot by default?
A. TLD(2)
B. ROBOT_3
C. TLD(3)
D. IBM.TLD.3
Answer: A

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NO.5 A Veritas NetBackup 6.5 environment uses a multi-tiered architecture.
Which system functions as the first tier?
A. Media Server
B. NetBackup Operations Manager (NOM) Server
C. Enterprise Client
D. Master Server
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two disk-based features support data de-duplication? (Select two.)
A. SAN Disk
B. Flexible Disk
C. OpenStorage Disk
D. PureDisk Storage
Answer: CD

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NO.7 In Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup policy?
A. a set of associations defining which Backup Creation Wizard will run with which clients
B. a schedule defining when a given backup will execute its full or incremental sessions
C. a list of parameters that define the details of how a given backup will be performed
D. a list of clients to be backed up and how long the backup can run
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two are internal databases used by Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. NDMP File database
B. Image database
C. Topology database
D. EMM database
E. Encrypted Media database
Answer: BD

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NO.9 What is the purpose of the nbproxy process?
A. It facilitates communication between the Master Server and the client.
B. It provides communication between multi-threaded processes and PBX.
C. It facilitates communication between the Master Server and the Media Server.
D. It provides communication between multi-threaded processes and single-threaded processes.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are two benefits of using OpenStorage to manage and control the use of disk-based storage by
Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. A Storage Unit can be configured to fail over from a Disk Pool to tape.
B. Multiple Media Servers can access and share a Disk Pool.
C. A Data Pool can be created, which allows load balancing of both tape and disk.
D. Load balancing can be performed across the Media Servers for a Disk Pool.
Answer: BD

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NO.11 Which statement is true about Veritas NetBackup 6.5 Data Classifications?
A. They control the execution of backups.
B. They schedule client backups.
C. They can be used to bias the deletion of backup images.
D. They are service level agreements.
Answer: C

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NO.12 A Veritas NetBackup 6.5 client system requests a user-initiated backup by sending a request to port
13720 of the configured Master Server system.
Which Veritas NetBackup service or process receives this request?
A. bpdbm
B. bprd
C. nbpem
D. nbjm
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is it called when an administrator sets up a set of disk volumes that can then be assign to
specific Media Servers, Policies, or Storage Units?
A. OpenStorage
B. Disk Pool
C. Volume Pool
D. Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which three features are included in the Standard Infrastructure capacity tier? (Select three.)
A. Library Based Tape Drive
B. OpenStorage Option
C. Vault Option
D. Shared Storage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: ACD

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NO.15 Which two cause the Policy Execution Manager to modify the Next Due Jobs worklist? (Select two.)
A. when Enterprise Media Manager initiates a request to modify the worklist
B. when a backup policy is added, modified, or removed
C. when a job is initiated and completed
D. when a user initiated backup is requested
Answer: BC

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NO.16 The backup of a particular client system fails with a status code 49 - 'Client did not start'.
For which process do you need to create and check the debug log?
A. bptm
B. bprd
C. bpbkar
D. bpdbm
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are three options for locating and viewing Veritas NetBackup 6.5 manuals and other
documentation? (Select three.)
A. NetBackup 6.5 media set (the CD-ROMs and/or DVD-ROMs)
B. documentation files in /opt/openv/goodies/hlp (UNIX/Linux)
C. hard copy documentation provided with NetBackup 6.5
D. online on the Symantec Corporation Support website
E. help files in C:\Program Files\Veritas\NetBackup\goodies\help (Windows)
Answer: ACD

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NO.18 Which two components/options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 include the Bare Metal Restore (BMR) Client?
(Select two.)
A. Standard Client
B. Bare Metal Restore Client
C. Enterprise Client
D. Desktop and Laptop Client
E. Database and Application Pack
Answer: AC

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NO.19 The nbproxy process communicates and queries which Veritas NetBackup 6.5 component?
A. Enterprise Media Manager
B. Database Manager
C. Robotic Control Service
D. Automatic Volume Recognition daemon
Answer: B

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NO.20 In a customer's Veritas NetBackup 6.5 environment, the Master Server is host A, the Enterprise Media
Manager (EMM) Server is host B, the only configured Media Server is host C, and Client systems are host
D through host Z. The customer has encountered a problem performing a standard restore operation of
host D from the tape on which the backup was written and was directed by Symantec support to enable
debug logging for the bpbrm process.
On which Veritas NetBackup 6.5 system would this debug log be enabled?
A. NetBackup Master Server (host A)
B. NetBackup EMM (host B)
C. NetBackup Media Server (host C)
D. NetBackup Client (host D)
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which feature of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 allows backup data to be encrypted at no additional cost?
A. Media Server Encryption
B. NDMP Encryption
C. Client Encryption
D. EMM Server Encryption
Answer: C

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NO.22 What are two features of the Flexible Disk Option? (Select two.)
A. shared disk
B. de-duplication
C. replication
D. advanced disk
Answer: AD

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NO.23 What is OpenStorage?
A. the new Symantec physical disk array
B. the software layer that interfaces with any type of disk
C. the Veritas NetBackup 6.5 service that manages disks
D. a new term for a Veritas NetBackup 6.5 Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.24 Where can you find and access a full list of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 product documentation?
A. under the Help tab in any window of the NetBackup NOM console
B. in the Help (Windows) or hlp (UNIX/Linux) directories on the Master Server
C. online on the Symantec Corporation Support website
D. on any host that has NetBackup component(s) loaded, through the global Help function
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which two statements are true about the PBX communication facility used in Veritas NetBackup?
(Select two.)
A. PBX is used when legacy (pre-6.x) processes need to communicate with new (6.x) NetBackup
processes.
B. PBX is used for all tape library command streams in NetBackup 6.5 and above.
C. PBX is used for NetBackup 6.0 and above for all interprocess communication.
D. PBX is used for all disk array snapshot facility command streams in NetBackup 6.5 and above.
Answer: AC

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NO.26 The backup of a client is not running at the expected time, based upon a specific backup policy and
schedule.
Which Veritas NetBackup 6.5 service/process is responsible for the worklist that contains the entry for this
job and for the initiation of the job, based upon the 'due' time of the job?
A. NetBackup Policy Execution Manager
B. NetBackup Job Manager
C. NetBackup Jobs Database Manager
D. NetBackup Backup and Restore Manager
Answer: A

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NO.27 An administrator wants to use the capacity-based licensing model. There are 50 clients, each with
50Gb of data that must be backed up. Ten of the clients are database servers.
What is the correct specification for determining the license configuration?
A. 5 Front End Terabytes, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
B. 1 Enterprise Server, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
C. 2.5 Front End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
D. 5 Back End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which two purchased options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 enable the additional features found in the
Enterprise Disk Foundation? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Client Option
B. Advanced Vault Option
C. VCB Integration Option
D. OpenStorage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: DE

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NO.29 The customer runs the Images on Media report to obtain a list of backup images that are on the tape
volume XYZ001.
Which NetBackup Master Server service/process maintains the catalog from which this report is derived?
A. NetBackup Jobs Database Manager
B. NetBackup Service Layer
C. NetBackup Job Manager
D. NetBackup Database Manager
Answer: D

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NO.30 On which two types of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 servers can the Enterprise Media Manager (EMM) be
installed? (Select two.)
A. Master Server
B. Media Server
C. Administration Server
D. Media and Device Server
Answer: AB

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Exam Code: ST0-029
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 161 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What are three features of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select three.)
A. Application Performance Management
B. Client Firewall
C. Application and Device Control
D. Endpoint Change Control
E. Intrusion Prevention
Answer: BCE

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NO.2 Which four events trigger an Auto-Protect scan? (Select four.)
A. create
B. open
C. archive
D. move
E. rename
F. run
Answer: ACDF

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NO.3 Symantec released a new version of Symantec Endpoint Protection client software. An administrator
needs to find out what versions of Symantec Endpoint Protection are currently in the network.
Which report provides this information?
A. Application and Device Control Report
B. System Report
C. Compliance Report
D. Computer Status Report
Answer: D

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NO.4 Where can you determine what content updates are available on the Symantec Endpoint Protection
Manager?
A. Home page
B. Monitors page
C. Clients page
D. Admin page
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two are characteristics of Proactive Threat Protection? (Select two.)
A. detects unknown threats
B. inspects encrypted network traffic
C. evaluates process behavior
D. blocks attacker's IP address
Answer: AC

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NO.6 Which Symantec Network Access Control Enforcer can be deployed as either a software plug-in or as
an appliance?
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Gateway Enforcer
C. Self Enforcement
D. DHCP Enforcer
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two external databases does Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager support? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2000
B. MySQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
D. Oracle Database 11g
Answer: AC

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NO.8 What is the relationship of Symantec Network Access Control to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. Symantec Network Access Control is completely integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0
and cannot be installed alone.
B. Symantec Network Access Control is a part of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but is not enabled
unless a separate license is purchased.
C. Symantec Network Access Control is not part of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but does not
interfere with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 components.
D. Symantec Network Access Control works with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but uses a different
management console and installation process.
Answer: B

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NO.9 When using the Push Deployment wizadr, which two methods can you use to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A. browse through Windows Networking
B. import a file containing IP addresses
C. specify a UNC path
D. import a file containing MAC addresses
E. import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: AC

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NO.10 Which Symantec Network Access Control method supports basic and transparent mode for 802.1x?
A. Gateway Enforcer
B. Self Enforcement
C. DHCP Enforcer
D. LAN Enforcer
Answer: D

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NO.11 In which group can you NOT create new subgroups?
A. Global
B. Subgroup
C. Temporary
D. Administrator-created
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the maximum number of clients that a single Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager can
support?
A. 25,000
B. 50,000
C. 75,000
D. 100,000
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the maximum number of clients that the embedded database can support?
A. 1,000
B. 2,000
C. 3,000
D. 5,000
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 client administration?
A. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 has been updated to resemble
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
B. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 centralized administration is now provided exclusively through
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
C. The administration console for Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 now includes fields and options
that require that Network Threat protection is enabled.
D. Symantec Network Access Control 11.0 can now be administered through either its own console or the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is a benefit of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. A single client provides all functions, which reduces the resource usage footprint.
B. Solaris is a supported platform for the client.
C. The number of required management consoles is reduced from five to three, which simplifies
administration compared to previous versions.
D. Proactive Threat Protection runs in real-time.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which parameter is unique to each Symantec Endpoint Protection client?
A. CUID
B. GUID
C. SUID
D. RUID
Answer: B

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NO.17 How does Symantec Endpoint Protection use Unmanaged Detector to find unmanaged devices on the
network?
A. It compares MAC addresses to a list of known hosts.
B. It receives logon failures notifications from an LDAP server.
C. It pings clients on port 80 to trigger a response from managed clients.
D. It attempts to make http connections with clients in an address range.
Answer: A

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NO.18 How do requirements for installing Symantec Network Access Control relate to installing various
components of Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0?
A. It does NOT install on any host that is used as either the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager or a
Group Update Provider.
B. It installs in the same client package as all of the Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 components.
C. It does NOT install on any client unless Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 is installed.
D. It installs and is automatically enabled when the Network Threat Protection component of Symantec
Endpoint Protection 11.0 is installed on any client.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which two high-level components make up the Symantec Endpoint Protection solution? (Select two.)
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection
B. Symantec Critical System Protection
C. Symantec Security Information Manager
D. Symantec Network Access Control
Answer: AD

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NO.20 Which two do you need in order to add a Replication Partner? (Select two.)
A. local domain user and password
B. administrator name and password
C. local domain administrator name and password
D. replication server name and port
Answer: BD

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NO.21 Which failover option is available in Symantec Endpoint Protection?
A. One manager can fail over between two databases in a single site.
B. One client can fail over between two managers in a single site.
C. One manager can fail over to another Group Update Provider.
D. One client can fail over between two databases in separate sites.
Answer: B

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NO.22 How many client installation packages are required to install Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 with
all available components?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which component must be installed prior to installing Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. Apache Tomcat Server
B. Microsoft Internet Authentication Server (IAS)
C. Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS)
D. Sun Java Runtime Environment (JRE)
Answer: C

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NO.24 A company is interested in making sure that their remote VPN users have compliant systems before
joining the corporate network.
Which two Symantec Network Access Control methods are recommended? (Select two.)
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Gateway Enforcer
C. Self Enforcement
D. DHCP Enforcer
Answer: BC

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NO.25 From where does the Migration and Deployment wizadr collect settings?
A. configuration file
B. Symantec Client Firewall Administrator
C. Symantec AntiVirus server
D. Active Directory server
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which two statements describe the interactions between Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 and
Quarantine Server? (Select two.)
A. Clients upload log data and quarantined files to Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager, which
forwards the files to the Quarantine Server.
B. Clients upload log data to Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager and upload quarantined files to
Quarantine Server.
C. Clients upload log data and quarantined files to the Quarantine Server, which forwards the log data to
the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager sends quarantine policies, which define the location of the
Quarantine Server, to managed clients.
E. The Quarantine Server sends its location and quarantine policies and rules to all clients.
Answer: BD

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NO.27 On which two operating systems can you install Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager? (Select
two.)
A. Microsoft Windows Vista Ultimate
B. Microsoft Windows NT Server
C. Microsoft Windows XP Professional
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
Answer: CD

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NO.28 Which two roles can Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager assign to managed clients? (Select two.)
A. LAN Enforcer
B. Group Update Provider
C. Unmanaged Detector
D. Database Replicator
Answer: BC

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NO.29 Which two statements are true about Symantec Network Access Control? (Select two.)
A. It is integrated into Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, with a shared management console and a
single shared client.
B. It is partially integrated into Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, with a shared management console
and compatible clients.
C. It is integrated into and included with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, but requires an additional
license to enable the network access control features.
D. It is on the roadmap to be integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0 in a future maintenance
pack release.
E. It is not integrated with Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0, although both clients may be installed on
any supported host without any operational issues.
Answer: AC

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NO.30 Upon which convention are custom Symantec Endpoint Protection Intrusion Prevention signatures
based?
A. Generic Exploit Blocking
B. Cisco IDS
C. SNORT
D. Tripwire
Answer: C

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