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Exam Code: Hp2-E24
Exam Name: HP (HP Service Sales Profession)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which value do HP services provide to the customers in addition to the warranty?
A. increased product reliability
B. advanced ormore timely response
C. free phone access numbers
D. 4-hour call-to-repair commitment
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your customer owns HP ProCurve Network Management software. How long are maintenance
releases available at no additional cost?
A. for as long as the customer owns the product
B. for one year, starting at the date of the purchase
C. for a period of 90 days
D. until the next version is released
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which feature do HP Care Pack service offers provide?
A. hardware and software maintenance
B. hardware maintenance only
C. software maintenance only
D. parts-only coverage
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which HP Care Pack do you advise for HP Scanjets if your customer has critical business
needs?
A. 4-hour Onsite Response, 24¡Á7
B. Next Day Onsite
C. Next Day Exchange
D. 4-hour Onsite Response, 9¡Á5
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which service provides the most complete range of deliverables?
A. 6-hour Call-to-Repair
B. 4-hour 24¡Á7
C. Proactive 24
D. Next Business Day on-site
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which HP service is classified as reactive?
A. Data Center Service
B. Support Plus 24
C. Education Service
D. Critical Service
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your HP ProLiant customer is looking for a single solution for hardware and openrating system
technical support services. Which HP Care Pack categories provide hardware and O/S
techinal support services in one part number? (Select two.)
A. Support Plus 24
B. Hardware Services 6-Hour Call to Repair On-site Service
C. Installation & Start-up Services
D. Support Plus
E. Hardware Services On-site Service
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which lifetime warranty level is included when selling an HP ProCurve 2910aI-24G Switch?
A. Next-Business-Day
B. Onsite-Parts-Exchange
C. SupportPlus
D. SupportPlus 24
Answer: A

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NO.9 Travel Next Business Day response HP Care Pack service provides mobiles computer users
with a support solution for HP Notebook products. Where can it be claimed?
A. in listed countries across all regions
B. in the country where the notebook was purchased
C. in EMEA
D. in the region where the notebook was purchased
Answer: A

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NO.10 What prevents a 5-year HP Care Pack from usage as a post-warranty Care Pack？
A. The 5-year HP Care Packcan not be registered after the standard warranty period has
expired.
B. The maximum Care Pack lifetime is three years.
C. Post-warranty service requires individual contracts.
D. The main warranty is threeyears, consequently a 2-year Care Pack is required.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which area in covered if we sell improvement of timeliness of problem resolutions?
A. increase IT quality
B. improve agility
C. mitigate risk
D. manage costs
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which services should be quoted by default with each storge platform that does not include
bundled sercices? (Select two.)
A. 1-year HP Care Pack
B. HP Proactive Service
C. HP Installation and Startup Service
D. 3-year HP Care pack
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 Why is it more effective to purchase an HP Care Pack support service than to purchase extra
printers in case of failure? (Select two.)
A. It reduces uncontrolled internal cost for logistic, installation, follow-up.
B. New printers imply new settings for the users.
C. Internal batteries may discharge while on shelf.
D. A printer should be installed only by an HP certified service technician.
E. HP printers cannot be moved once they are operational.
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 Which approximate fraction of all customer helpdesk calls relates to commercial printers?
A. more than 75%
B. up to 50%
C. less than 10%
D. between 10% and 20%
Answer: D

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NO.15 You offer either basic Installation or Installation & Start-up Care Pack services to your
customers. Which operations constitute the distinction between the two offerings? (Select two)
A. operation and 9¡Á5softerware support verification
B. coordination of network installation and start-upactivitises
C. configuration download
D. confirmation of software revisions and device cabling
E. building the configurationfile
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: HP2-E26
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Stage Four of the HP Sales Cycle is the "Develop and propose the solution" stage. What is a key
goal of this stage?
A. define final terms and conditions
B. confirm customer's budget and commitment
C. address customer requirements and show immediate ROI
D. assess the opportunity in terms of workload and performance
Answer: C

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NO.2 Performing a SWOT analysis will help you understand the customer perspective and positively
affect the outcome of the HP solution. Which attributes are examined during a SWOT analysis?
A. services, workforce, outcomes, and tools
B. standards, workloads, operations, and technology
C. strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats
D. servers, workstations, operating systems, and terminals
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement best describes stock market regulations, environmental requirements, and
country policies?
A. They are major contributors to an economic recession.
B. They are business drivers that affect the current marketplace.
C. They are internal factors that customers can monitor and control.
D. They are primary considerations among systems administrators.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a revenue-generating initiative that a company might undertake?
A. supply chain consolidation
B. new product launch
C. IT staff outsourcing
D. virtualization study
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which focus area represents an old business paradigm?
A. business outcome focus
B. focus on innovation
C. focus on shared IT assets across the enterprise
D. operational focus
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-H08
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Desktops , Workstations , and Notebooks)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 131 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which statement about SATA technology is correct?
A. SAS hard drives can be connected to a SATA controller.
B. SATA hard drives can be connected directly to a SCSI controller.
C. SATA hard drives can be connected to a SAS controller.
D. SATA hard drives can be installed in a daisy chain configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The maximum amount of usable RAM in Microsoft Vista is limited by which factors? (Select two.)
A. processor manufacturer
B. SyStem chipset
C. operating system
D. memory drivers
E. hard drive capacity
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 An HP product carries a 3-3-3 warranty. What does this mean?
A. The product carries a 3 year parts, 3 year labor warranty, with no onsite service.
B. The product carries a nine year warranty on all parts, labor, and updates.
C. The product carries a 3 year parts, labor, and onsite service warranty.
D. The product carries an advanced replacement warranty.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does HP QuickLook enable you to do?
A. access your Outlook data even if your device is inhibernate mode or powered off
B. access HP technical data or support information on the Internet
C. view the contents of a system folder without opening that folder
D. view the complete system information relating to your notebook
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the main function of a DisplayPort to DVI Adapter?
A. to convert the output of a graphics card from VGA to DVI
B. to convertDisplayPort output to DVI for use with a Single Link DVI-D monitor
C. to enable 3D graphics to be rendered more clearly on a CRT monitor
D. to enable S-Video support in order to view HDTV content
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is true about HP thin clients?
A. They run Linux operating systems only.
B. They have no system BIOS.
C. They use an embedded operating system.
D. They have no network functionality.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the primary function of MXM graphics modules in portables?
A. provides the ability to use scalable link interface (SLI) graphic processors
B. allows the graphics processor to be easily upgraded
C. provides high-definition hardware support
D. allows an embedded video chipset installation
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which HP product line is best suited for a customer who uses a manufacturing computer-aided design
program?
A. HP Tablet
B. HPTouchSmart PC
C. HP Mini Notebook
D. HP Personal Workstation
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is a benefit of HP DieamColor technology?
A. It automatically locates and hides defective pixels by changing their color.
B. It allows the use of a digitizer for point-and-click display functionality.
C. It produces consistent color across digital devices and applications.
D. It adjusts the color of the display according to the external light sources.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which HP product supports a RAID 5 configuration?
A. notebook
B. desktop workstation
C. slimline desktop
D. mobile workstation
Answer: B

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NO.11 Identify two BIOS security features introduced with the HP BIOS based on Unified Extensible Firmware
Interface (UEFI). (Select two.)
A. system recovery
B. BIOS user accounts
C. boot device options
D. SpareKey
E. DriveLock
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 A customer complains that the HP QuickLook 2 feature is not working on their notebook running
Windows Vista. Which application must be installed to support this feature?
A. HP Assistant
B. Microsoft Aero
C. HP Help and Support
D. Microsoft Office
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which operating system is supported by HP on HP desktop PCs?
A. Ubuntu Linux
B. Windows Server 2008
C. WindowsVista
D. Windows 2000
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is the difference between a frontside bus (FSB) and Intel QuickPath?
A. QuickPath connects the memory controller to the I/O controller; FSB connects the CPU to the chipset.
B. QuickPath is a peripheral data bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
C. QuickPath is a graphics controller bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
D. QuickPath provides faster CPU data transfer speeds than the FSB.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which HP option contains an integrated hard drive?
A. Mobile Expansion Unit (MEU)
B. 3-in-1NAS Port Replicator
C. Simple Port Replicator
D. Advanced Port Replicator
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which function does the Wireless LAN 802.11 n standard provide?
A. uses the same antenna to receive and transmit simultaneously
B. operates in the 2.4GHz frequency range only
C. uses two or more transmitter and receiver antennas
D. provides more security features than 802.11
Answer: C

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NO.17 A monitor is moved to a new computer. Upon power-up the screen message Theft Mode Enabled
displays. How can you restore the monitor to normal operation? (Select two.)
A. Obtain the master PIN from the system administrator.
B. Disable the Theft Mode in HP Display Utility.
C. Enter the PIN in HP Display Assistant Utility.
D. Return the monitor to original computer and disable Theft Mode.
E. Press and hold the reset button on the back of the monitor.
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 What must you do to optimize the performance of a 64-bit processor?
A. Install 64-bit compatible RAM.
B. Enable bit control in the BIOS.
C. Use a 64-bit operating system.
D. Install faster system memory.
Answer: C

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NO.19 What is the difference between SATA and eSATA?
A. SATA has more drive options.
B. eSATA uses an external port.
C. SATA has lower power consumption.
D. eSATA uses a faster bus speed.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which range of colors does the HP DreamColor display?
A. more than 1 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
B. more than 10 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
C. up to 1 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
D. up to 10 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-K16
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP StorageWorks XP Disk Arrays)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 64 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A customer wants to discuss the industry trend toward organizations developing a 24 x 7 lights-out data
center. Which HP business technology strategy addresses this trend?
A. Grid Computing
B. Adaptive Infrastructure
C. Business Information Optimization
D. Business Technology Optimization
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which term describes how business technology results are measured?
A. reduced costs
B. strategic growth
C. business enablers
D. business outcomes
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which HP StorageWorks Disk Array software shifts most of the replication workload to the remote site,
reducing resource consumption on the primary storage system and improving production application
performance?
A. XP External Storage
B. XP Replication Monitor
C. XP Continuous Access Journal
D. XP Continuous Access Asynchronous
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which HP Adaptive Infrastructure enabler aggregates physical resources, and presents those
resources as capabilities that can be used by applications, desktop clients, or other types of storage
clients?
A. automation
B. virtualization
C. management
D. IT systems and services
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which Adaptive Infrastructure key enabler allows customers to shift the focus of their human resources
from maintenance-related tasks to more strategic or innovative requirements?
A. security
B. automation
C. virtualization
D. power and cooling
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-Z06
Exam Name: HP (HP ProCurve AIS 2010 Delta Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What are the advantages of deploying 802.11n wireless technology instead of 802.11a
technology? (Select two)
A. 5Ghz operating frequency
B. support for centralized WLAN architecture
C. backward compatibility with 802.11b
D. higher transmission rates
E. more powerful encryption options
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which HP ProCurve switch model display the following prompt in the interface configuration context?
ProCurve Switch(eth-Cl) #
A. 2910al
B. 3500yl
C. 4200vl
D. 3400cl
E. 2610
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which command entered at the CLI of an HP ProCurve switch with factory default settings will move
you from Operator privilege to the Manger privilege level?
A. ProCurve Switch> manager
B. ProCurve Switch> super user
C. ProCurve Switch> enable
D. ProCurve Switch> elevate
Answer: C

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NO.4 You must configure an IP interface on an HP ProCurve switch. Which privilege level and CLI context will
enable you to perform this task?
A. administrator privilege level and router context
B. operator privilege level and IP address context
C. super user privilege level and CLIpassthrough context
D. manager privilege level and VLAN context
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which HP ProCurve switch models display the following prompt in the Interface configuration context?
(Select three.)
ProCurve Swicch(eth-1)#
A. 2910al
B. 4200vl
C. 5400zl
D. 6200yl
E. 2610
F. 8200zl
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 You must define a hostname of PCU5406zl-01 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch. Which CLI prompt
and command will perform this task?
A. ProCurve Switch 5406zl (config) # hostname PCU5406zl-01
B. ProCurve Switch 5406zl # hostname PCU5406zl-01
C. ProCurve switch 5406zl (vlan-1) # hostname PCU5406zl-01
D. ProCurve switch 5406zl > hostname PCU5406zl-01
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are at the manager level prompt in the CLI of an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch. At this prompt you can
choose to update switch software and erase the startup configuration. What other option is available at
this prompt?
A. disable ports
B. assign IP address to VLAN interface
C. restart the switch
D. enable IP routing
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which options are available at the following prompt in the CLI of an HP ProCurve 3500yl switch? (Select
three.)
3500yl-24G>
A. ping6
B. reload
C. write
D. show
E. enable
Answer: A,D,E

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Exam Code: HP3-024
Exam Name: HP (HP Color LaserJet 4700 series)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Before performing an engine test on the HP Color LaserJet 4700ph+,________.
A. the printing device must be powered off
B. the printing device must be power-cycled
C. the output device connection cable must be detached from the printing device
D. the output device and output accessory bridge must be removed
Answer: B

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NO.2 When installing drum drive motors from service parts________.
A. the motors are optimized for any color and can be used with any color
B. each color (C, M, Y, K) has its own drum drive motor part number, optimized for that color
C. all motors must be replaced as a set
D. the fusible link burns up and resets the drum driver counters
Answer: A

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NO.3 The HP Color LaserJet 4700 automatically calibrates and cleans at certain times to maintain
optimum print quality. Which of the following conditions cause the device to perform a color-plane
registration (CPR)? Select THREE.
A. one or more print cartridges are installed that have not previously been installed in the printing device
B. 10,000 pages have printed since the last calibration
C. 'Full Calibrate Now' is requested through the control panel
D. the ETB is replaced
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 For what reason should you disassemble and then replace the paper feed assembly?
A. if repeated paper jams occur due to excessive paper skew
B. if replacing feed rollers and adjusting paper skew sensors do not solve repeated jam errors
C. if the mediasensor value no longer matches the value on the label located on the paper feed
assembly
D. the paper feed assembly can be replaced as a full unit but should never be disassembled
Answer: D

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NO.5 Automatic calibration occurs for which events? Select THREE.
A. whenever the device comes out of power save mode
B. when the printer is powered on after having been powered down for longer than 20 seconds
C. whenever a brand new print cartridge is installed in the printer
D. when 1,000 pages have printed since the last calibration
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: HP0-J38
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Enterprise Backup Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 85 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 You are implementing an ESL E-Series tape library. What is the maximum number of drives supported
per drive cluster?
A.2
B.4
C.8
D.16
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the expected growth rate of the Storage Media Operations database?
A.100MB for every 2000 tapes
B.100MB for every 10,000 tapes
C.1GB for every 1000 tapes
D.2GB for every 10,000 tapes
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are proposing a disaster tolerant solution to your customer. Which factors should you consider
when estimating the cost of data loss? (Select three.)
A.size of the backup and restore window
B.type of backup, image based or file based
C.cost of downtime while recreating data
D.ability to recreate the data
E.effect on customer and supplier satisfaction
F.average amount of lost data
Answer: C, D, E

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NO.4 What is the difference between a normal full backup and a copy full backup?
A.A normal full backup backs up files and resets the archive bit. A copy full backup does not.
B.A normal full backup always uses the last access time to determine if the file needs backing up. The
copy full backup uses the archive bit.
C.A copy full backup is a replica of a normal full backup.
D.A copy full backup is image based. A normal full backup is file based.
Answer: A

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NO.5 To protect against data loss, companies must develop and follow backup and restore
strategies. Which questions can be used to determine the approporiate backup strategy?
(Select three.)
A.What is the size of the restore window?
B.Where is the data located?
C.Which type of tape device is used?
D.Is full or partial backup required?
E.Which type of storage is used?
F.Is the data image based or file based?
Answer: A, D, F

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Exam Code: HP2-K01
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP BladeSystem)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 126 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which ProLiant Essentials Foundation Pack CD can run the Array Diagnostic Utility (ADU)?
A. Diagnostic CD
B. SmartStart CD
C. Management CD
D. Firmware Maintenance CD
Answer: B

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NO.2 You need to update Integrated Lights-Outs (iLO) card firmware, but you do not have physical
access to the server.
How can you accomplish this task?
A. useiLO web interface
B. use System Software Manager
C. use Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM)
D. use Instant Support Enterprise Edition (ISEE) software
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of DIMMs that can be installed into an HP Integrity BL860c Server
Blade?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
E. 16
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which HP remote application continuously monitors hardware and sends an alert to HP when an
error occurs?
A. HP Systems Insight Manager
B. Open Service Event Manager
C. Instant SupportEnterprise Edition
D. Integrated Management Log Viewer
Answer: C

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NO.5 During which portion of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology do you carefully observe and record
the results of each step including any error messages or changes in functionality?
A. Step 1 - Collect data
B. Step 3 - Develop the action plan
C. Step 4 - Execute the action plan
D. Step 6 - Implement preventative measures
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are installing a new InifiniBand Mezzanine card into a customer's BL480c server blade. The
mezzanine card is installed into mezzanine slot 2.
Which interconnect location must the InifiniBand controller be installed into?
A. bays 3-4
B. bays 5-6
C. bays 7-8
D. Placement of the controller does not matter. The Onboard Administrator will properly map
theInifiniband mezzanine card to the installed Infiniband Interconnect.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What happens if a server blade is moved from an enclosure managed by Virtual Connect to an
enclosure that is not managed by Virtual Connect?
A. MAC address and WWNs must be changed manually for the server blade.
B. Local MAC addresses are automatically returned to the original factory defaults.
C. After boot, server blades will gain access to the network as soon as the server and interconnect
modules are ready.
D. The configuration of the server blade is automatically updated before it is allowed to power on
and connect to the network.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which task of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology do you accomplish when performing Step 2?
A. Determine which subsystem could cause the problem.
B. Identify the steps necessary to implement each solution.
C. Identify the possible solution for each possible root cause.
D. Determine and use the most appropriate tools for each situation.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which online tool can be utilized to plan the power requirements for an HP Integrity BL860c
Blade?
A. HP Part Surfer
B. HP Knowledge Base
C. HPBladeSystem Sizer
D. HP Power Analysis & Planner
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which HP cooling technology uses power management to control CPU power state automatically
based on application demand?
A. Active Cool fans
B. Dynamic Power Saver
C. Modular Cooling System
D. ProLiant Power Regulator
Answer: D

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NO.11 You added an interconnect switch in an HP BladeSystem c-Class and the switch does not power
up. What should you check? (Select three.)
A. interconnect type and location
B. position of the mezzanine cards
C. position of the power supplies in the enclosure
D. status of the first full-height server blade in the enclosure
E. enclosure and switch status in the Onboard Administrator
F. whether interconnect bay has been activated for the bay the switch is in
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.12 Which HP StorageWorks arrays can be used with the HP BladeSystem c-Class? (Select two.)
A. MSA 20
B. MSA 30
C. MSA 500
D. MSA 1000
E. MSA 1500cs
Answer: D,E

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NO.13 A customer reports that an InfiniBand switch does not power on. What is a possible cause of this
problem?
A. Dynamic Power Saver is not activated on theInfiniBand switch.
B. A three-phase power system should be used withInfiniBand switches.
C. At least one server blade is not equipped with Host Channel Adapter (HCA) card.
D. The Onboard Administrator version firmware does not supportInfiniBand switches.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which utility allows you to easily install and provision one or many blade servers in an unattended,
automated fashion?
A. Virtual Install Disk
B. Rapid Deployment Pack (RDP)
C. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
D. HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
Answer: B

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NO.15 A customer wants to install five full-height blade servers into a c-Class enclosure that is running
N+N power supply redundancy mode.
How many power supplies are required to support this configuration?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: D

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NO.16 If you suspect the hard drive or hard drive subsystem may be at fault in a system, which HP tools
can isolate the source of the problem? (Select two.)
A. Onboard Administrator
B. Array Diagnostics Utility (ADU)
C. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
D. Insight Diagnostics Online Edition
E. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays (ORCA)
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 You installed new server blades into an HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosure.
How does the enclosure indicate if a server blade is not installed correctly?
A. The HPBladeSystem Insight Display will flash blue.
B. The interconnect will display errors when you configure it.
C. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the interconnect to power on.
D. The Onboard Administrator will not allow the incorrectly placed server blade to power on.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which item is required to power on and troubleshoot a single p-Class blade server that has been
removed from its enclosure?
A. Diagnostic Station and adapter
B. Server Blade Management Module
C. Integrated Lights-Out remote console
D. You cannot power on and troubleshoot a p-Class blade that has been removed from its
enclosure
Answer: A

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NO.19 Some servers within a customer data center turn off because of overheating. You have an air
conditioning specification and want to compare this information with the amount of heat generated
by the servers.
Which HP tool provides this information?
A. Product Bulletin
B. Power Calculator
C. Data Center Sizer
D. Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT)
Answer: B

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NO.20 Your customer requires software that will help keep HP software and drivers installed on c-Class
blade servers up-to-date. They want a low-cost solution.
What should you recommend to this customer? (Select two)
A. HP Client Manager
B. HP Virtualization Software
C. Version Control Agent (VCA)
D. Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM)
E. Vulnerability and Patch Management Pack (VPM)
Answer: C,D

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NO.21 You work with an enclosure equipped with ten fans and sixteen half-height servers. Two fans
failed.
In which slots must you insert the remaining fans to keep all sixteen servers working?
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9
B. 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9, 10
C. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 9, 10
Answer: C

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NO.22 You are performing maintenance at a customer's site and they are booting an HP BladeSystem p-
Class server from a storage area network (SAN). You must configure the server with a virtual boot
device that enables the server to fetch boot-loading instructions from the SAN.
How is the virtual boot device presented to the host server?
A. as a Logical Unit Number (LUN) on the disk array
B. as a Pre-boot Execution Environment (PXE) NIC
C. as aFibre channel Host Bus Adapter (HBA) on the target server
D. as a Deployment Server database attached to the target server
Answer: A

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NO.23 Your customer has eight BL20p G3 servers all with Fibre Channel mezzanine cards. They also
have a GbE2 switch installed with a Brocade switch attached.
None of their servers can access external shared storage (MSA1500cs). What should you verify
first?
A. if the BL20p G3 has a 4Gb or fasterFibre Channel card
B. if the Brocade switch has an IP address assigned by DHCP
C. ifFibre Channel pass through is installed on the GbE2 switches
D. if Selective Storage Presentation (SSP) is enabled on the MSA1500cs
Answer: C

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NO.24 Your customer wants a solution that allows them to remotely deploy operating systems without
having to interact directly with each server blade or hiring additional IT staff.
Which product should they install to accomplish this goal?
A. HP Version Control Agent
B. HP Rapid Deployment Pack
C. HP Remote Deployment Utility
D. HP Vulnerability and Patch Management
E. HP Version Control Repository Manager
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which GUI utility diagnoses system bottlenecks and is easily integrated with HP Systems Insight
Manager?
A. HP Control Tower for HPBladeSystem
B. HPProLiant Essentials Workload Management Pack
C. HPProLiant Essentials Performance Management Pack
D. HPProLiant Essentials Vulnerability and Patch Management Pack
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which c-Class BL series server blade supports 4 internal SAS drives?
A. BL460c
B. BL480c
C. BL685c
D. BL860c
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which management functionality is provided by the Onboard Administrator? (Select two.)
A. manages shared power and cooling for the enclosure
B. provides management Ethernet fabric for the enclosure
C. provides HP SIM (System Insight Manager) functionality for Blade servers
D. activates Remote Deployment Pack (RDP) when an in-service server fails
E. automates the process of deploying server operating systems and software
Answer: A,B

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NO.28 In which situation are qualified rack options covered by the HP BladeSystem c-Class Care Pack
services?
A. when the options are installed in the same rack
B. when the rack is fully populated with p-Class blades
C. when the options are used only with blade equipment
D. when the options are purchased with the c7000 enclosure
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which processor types are offered on the BL460c? (Select two)
A. AMDOpteron Processor
B. Dual-Core Intel EM64T processor
C. Intel Itanium 2 Madison processor
D. Intel Itanium 2 Montecito processor
E. Quad-Core Intel EM64T processor
Answer: B,E

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NO.30 How many BL30p servers can be supported by a fully populated 1U p-Class power enclosure?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-M40
Exam Name: HP (HP Network Automation 9.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Satellite Remote Agents send syslog messages to trigger a snapshot by an HP Network Automation
(NA) component.
What is this component?
A. NA Core associated with the satellite
B. Satellite Gateway host
C. NA Core hosting the database
D. host running the NA Core Management Engine
Answer: A

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NO.2 When a user is being created, several things must be configured and/or assigned. Which entity can a
user be assigned to during the creation process?
A. groups
B. roles
C. command permissions
D. script permissions
Answer: A

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NO.3 The IT Compliance Life Cycle in HP Network Automation has four stages. Which stage includes the
activity of establishing a workflow plan?
A. Discovery
B. Definition
C. Control
D. Maturity
Answer: C

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NO.4 To which entity are command permissions assigned?
A. Partitions
B. Realm
C. Roles
D. Users
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is one of the default roles included in HP Network Automation?
A. User Manager
B. Core Administrator
C. Device Manager
D. Limited Access
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is a main work area in the My Workspace Window?
A. Current Device Group
B. My Tasks
C. Current Work Flows
D. Search
Answer: A

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Which page view does the exhibit display?
A. Monitor Status
B. Event Status
C. Server Monitor
D. System Status
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which port scanner do you use to discover network devices in HP Network Automation 9.0?
A. Nmap
B. Superscan
C. Unicornscan
D. Scanrand
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the term for multiple cores connected through database replication?
A. Site
B. Realm
C. Mesh
D. Partition
Answer: C

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NO.10 When you click Save Device, HP Network Automation automatically begins driver discovery using two
main access methods.
What is one of these access methods?
A. RMI
B. SCP
C. TFTP
D. CLI
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-Z17
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Network Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 A customer considering an HP Networking solution is concerned about power usage. You inform the
customer that Miercom certified HP Networking solutions as "Green." What did Miercom find concerning
HP switch energy consumption?
A. HP switches use as much as 20% less energy than the competition.
B. HP switches use as much as 30% less energy than the competition.
C. HP switches use as much as 40% less energy than the competition.
D. HP switches use as much as 50% less energy than the competition.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which recent acquisition demonstrates HP's commitment to provide the best enterprise networking
solution?
A. Palm
B. Nortel
C. Citrix
D. 3Com/H3C
Answer: D

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NO.3 The A-Series portfolio is perfect for which customers?
A. companies with small and/or simple deployments
B. companies with large and/or complex deployments
C. small companies
D. large companies
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer has a legacy, proprietary technology that lacks choice. You tell the customer that HP
Networking solutions are open. What else should you tell this customer about the value of HP Networking
solutions?
A. HP Networking solutions provide up to 10% lower cost of ownership.
B. HP Networking solutions provide up to 15% lower cost of ownership.
C. HP Networking solutions provide up to 35% lower cost of ownership.
D. HP Networking solutions provide up to 65% lower cost of ownership.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which environment ensures that all resources and processes are controlled by
a shared-services engine that provisions and adapts application environments to instantly respond to
business demands?
A. Converged Infrastructure
B. Management Infrastructure
C. Data Infrastructure
D. Monitoring Infrastructure
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-J41
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP StorageWorks P2000 Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What are benefits of the P2000 G3 Storage Array compared to the G2 version? (Select two.)
A. 6Gb SAS architecture
B. 512 snapshot functionality as standard
C. drive spin-down capability
D. scalability to 149 LFF drives
E. scalability to 96 SFF
Answer: BC

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NO.2 What is the correct definition of the P2000 G3 Remote Snap?
A. a synchronous, controller-based replication process based on Volume Shadow Services
B. an asynchronous, software-based replication process based on Volume Shadow Services
C. a synchronous, controller-based replication process based on snapshot technology
D. an asynchronous, controller-based replication process based on snapshot technology
Answer: D

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NO.3 What must you do before you update expansion module firmware on a single-controller P2000 G3
system?
A. Stop I/O to all vdisks.
B. Set the failover policy.
C. Segregate the module from the controller.
D. Update the enclosure management processor (EMP) firmware first.
Answer: A

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NO.4 On the P2000 combo iSCSI/FC controller, how do iSCSI and Fibre Channel ports differ? (Select two.)
A. The iSCSI ports require an IP address.
B. FC ports require a Logical Unit Number.
C. The iSCSI ports are 10Gb/s while the FC ports are 8Gb/s.
D. The FC ports are 8Gb/s while the iSCSI ports are 1Gb/s.
E. The controller has more iSCSI ports than FC ports.
Answer: AC

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NO.5 What is a benefit of the P2000 G3 FC array?
A. 8GB cache per controller
B. built-in Remote Snap capability allowing replication over FC
C. support for 128 snapshots included in base license
D. choice of 8Gb/s FC or combo FC/iSCSI controllers
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is considered an iSCSI initiator in a P2000 G3 MSA implementation?
A. volumes
B. Ethernet switches
C. combo FC/iSCSI controllers
D. server hosts
Answer: D

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NO.7 When implementing a P2000 G3 solution with a single 8Gb/s FC controller, what are advantages of a
fabric topology over direct connect?
A. supports multiple paths
B. provides storage access from iSCSI adapters
C. supports more storage
D. provides storage access for more hosts
Answer: D

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NO.8 When you add an expansion module to a P2000 G3 MSA, which HP recommended action should you
take?
A. Configure the storage before you cable the expansion module to the controllers.
B. Update the SMI-S embedded processor firmware before you configure the module.
C. Install the Storage Management Utility on the new module.
D. Set all enclosure management processors to the same firmware level.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which type of volume replication can you define in Replication Setup Wizard in a P2000 G3
environment?
A. volume replication on a host agent basis
B. volume replication on the local system or to a remote system
C. volume replication on the local system but not to a remote system
D. volume replication to a remote system exclusively
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which entity must be created for Remote Snap replication in a P2000 G3 environment?
A. data replication group
B. mirror set
C. replication set
D. snap group
Answer: C

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